Mihrof

I guess it comes down to the meaning of Jesus being fully human and fully God at the same time. He 'emptied himself' yet he still has his powers to commend demons and perform miracles......

2 Peter 3 and Rev 21 indicate that whatever Satan contols now, will be destroyed, so I still cannot see the point of tempting Jesus with them. I am sorry if I am being stubborn.

Thank you all very much for the replies! I learned so much. As BornAgain490 mentioned, and some other people as well, Satan might not know that Jesus was fully God at that time. I am afraid I could not agree with this view, as Mark 1:34 and Luke 8:26-28 clearly show that even demons knew who Jesus was. Tempting a human that is also fully God, seems futile.

I guess what I am trying to say is, if Satan had no chance at all then why being tempted by him and resisted is such a big deal?

Matthew 4:5-10. Satan knows who Jesus is and that He is God's Son. Then why tempt Him at all? Especially, why try to tempt him with the kingdoms of the world, when He is the master of the universe?

Hi EddieM, thank you for this post, I have actually been thinking about this. If you don't mind, I would like to ask some questions. 1. 2 Sam 12 doesn't seem to suggest the child is in Heaven, it's like saying 'gathered to his people', which could merely mean death. Do you have any other bible reference to your opinion on this topic? 2. For argument's sake, if we are all born sinful (Romans 5), how can people with intellectual disabilities, or remote tribal people who never heard of the Gospel or unborn babies be condemned when they had never willingly rebelled against God? 3. Please let me know if you think this thinking is questionable. Romans 5 suggests sin entered the world because of Adam, and Adam's action (using his free will given by God to rebel against God) is inherited by us just as a father teaches other things to his children. It is the choosing to rebel against God willingly that condemned us not because we are all descendants of Adam. Because Ezekiel 18:20 tells us, “The soul who sins is the one who will die. The son will not share the guilt of the father, nor will the father share the guilt of the son.” This verse clearly shows that punishment for one’s sins is borne by that person. This thinking will solve the question in my second point. Any input from anyone is much appreciated.