Paul James

Cobbling together random verses out of the concordance to support your own opinion is not reliable support that your opinion is actually Scriptural. All you are doing is quoting parrot fashion what your teachers and mentors have taught you.

I read through the posts waiting to see where the subject got around to comments about the gift of tongues, but it didn't, so I am wondering what all these posts have to do with people speaking in tongues.

How does this relate to 1 Corinthians 14:2 where Paul says that the person who speaks in tongues speaks to God and that no man understands him? And if tongues were understandable languages, why does Paul say that speaking in tongues in church doesn't edify anyone because no one understands what is being spoken, so it is better to speak to one's self and to God? And, Paul said that he spoke in tongues more than them all, and would they all spoke in tongues, so if not in church, where would he have spoken in tongues, and where would he prefer they also speak in tongues? And, by the way, when was the last time you were in church and someone prophesied, and the unbelievers there fell on their faces, acknowledged that the reality of God was among you and turned to Christ as a result?

He said, "I thank God I speak in tongues more than you all, yet in the church, I would rather speak two words in understandable language that all may be edified". So, he spoke in tongues more than all of them, yet not in church! Get a dictionary and look up the meaning of the word "yet".

That's right. But Paul said he spoke in tongues more than them all, and wished they all spoke in tongues, and that speaking tongues was giving thanks well, and seeing that in another place he said, "Be followers of me as I am of Christ", then where do you think he spoke in tongues if not in church?

And, the rest of the chapter? We mustn't read into the chapter what is not there, and we mustn't ignore what is there.

Of course you have several verses of Scripture that says that it is only for the early church and not for those who follow to this day. sc

Someone does. According to 1 Corinthians 14:2 it says that praying in tongues is to God, so it is fairly clear that He understands it, even if no one else does. I guess you are satisfied with just praying from your mind, and when you don't have any more words to express yourself, you stop praying. Paul didn't. When he ran out of words, he prayed in the Spirit and so he was able to pray without ceasing.

If that is so how to you reconcile 1 Corinthians 14:2 where it say that when a person speaks in tongues he speaks to God because no one understands him? Do you think Paul was ignorant misinterpreting what tongues actually is when he wrote that verse?